Did Paul call Jesus “Lord” in the Jewish YHWH-sense (as a substitute for God’s name)?
Paul’s letters (written in Greek) exemplify an ubiqitous religious pattern of habitually calling Jesus “lord” (κύριος). Like “lord” in english, κύριος (kurios) had several meanings, but among them was the Jewish reverential translation of God’s personal name (YHWH). When Paul called Jesus κύριος, was he generally intending it in this Jewish way, such that it carries the meaning and weight of YHWH? Was Paul indirectly applying God's name-designation to Jesus?
In describing Jesus as “Lord”, Paul quotes scriptures about YHWH (God) so-as to make the quote's instance(s) of “LORD” (i.e. YHWH) contextually designate Jesus.
This article analyzes four evidences,...
• …E.g.: Rom 10:13 implies it's “Lord” Jesus in Joel 2 (“call… Lord”).
• …E.g: 1 Cor 1:31 implies it's “Lord” Jesus in Jer 9 (“boast in… Lord”).
• …E.g.: 1 Cor 10:26 implies it's “Lord” Jesus in Ps 21 (“earth is… Lord’s”).
• …E.g.: 2 Cor 10:17 implies it's “Lord” Jesus in Jer 9 (“boast in… Lord”).
In describing Jesus, and calling him “Lord”, Paul’s letters cite or harken back to Old Testament quotes (with concepts and expressions) about “Lord” (YHWH) but in contexts that make them about “Lord” (Jesus). Right?
• Examples about, e.g...
• …in X, Paul ties OT “Lord” expression/concept Y to Jesus,
• …[X = Phil 2:9-11; Y = Isa 45:23]() (“every knee… bow…Lord”)
• …[X = 1 Cor 8:5-6; Y = Dt 64]() (the Shema)
• …[X = 1 Cor 10:21; Y = Mal 1:7;12]() (“defile… Lord’s table”)
• …[X = 1 Cor 10:22; Y = Dt 32:21]() (“provoke…Lord to jealousy”)
• …[X = 2 Cor 3:16; Y = Ex 34:34]() (“Lord… veil”)
• …[X = 1 Thes 3:13; Y = Zech 14:5]() (“Lord… come.. holy ones”)
• …[X = 1 Thes 4:6; Y = Ps 94:2]() [1](“Lord… of vengeance”)
• …[X = 2 Thes 1:7-8; Y = Isa 66:15]() (“Lord… come in fire…)
• …[X = 2 Thes 1:9; Y = Isa 2:10f]() (“presence of Lord(s).. glory”)
• Expressions applied to Jesus in multiple letters:
• [“Calling on the name of the Lord”]()
• [“Lord… be glorified”]()
• [“Boasting in” the Lord”]() (knowing him)
• Paul’s letters cite OT quotes about the “Lord” (YHWH) in contexts that make “Lord” designate Jesus.
• [More forthcoming]
In his letters (about religious matters), Paul habitually attributes to Jesus the title “lord.”
After all, categorized by whether there is dispute over Paul's authorship…
• …it is used about 180 times in the undisputed letters.
• …it is used about 50 times in the disputed letters.
This is relevant for two reasons:
A) Unless Paul was intending it as a YHWH-substutition, such a frequent use of the honorific title is unprecedented and inexplicable.
B) Paul was not an inept communicator. [Christians regularly referred to God as “Lord”]() Given the frequency and religious contexts in which Paul called Jesus “Lord”, Paul would have rightly expected readers to interpret him as using it in the YHWH-substitution sense. (And yet despite the obvious “risks” he continued to do so without worry, as if that is precisely what he intended.) This is exacerbated since Paul calls Jesus, not simply Lord, but “the” Lord.
The church lead by the apostles in Jerusalem publicly maintained that Jesus was properly designated as κύριος in the YHWH-sense. [Full article forthcoming.] Right?
• Pauline churches inherited “Lord” (Jesus) from them.
• Paul’s calling Jesus “Lord” (in the YHWH-sense) is a Jewish-Christian tradition he relayed
• Early Christians in general called Jesus “Lord” in a YHWH sense.
This is relevant because the Jerusalem church's teachings-traditions and Paul's teachings-traditions largely matched.[Forthcoming]