If Paul quotes Joel 2:32 in Rom 10:3, the context implies Joel’s use of “Lord” actually designates Jesus as the one whose name we are to call upon for deliverance. Right? (Read Joel 2:32,1 then read Rom 10:13.2)
• Paul frequently speaks of boasting in Christ on the Cross.
• Paul uses “Lord” to designate Jesus in general (not God).
• Romans 10 is contextually about Jesus in general.
• Romans 10 designates Jesus as “Lord” in the immediate context (just prior to the preceding verse),
• Rom 10:13 “call…Lord” is supplying Old Testament justification for “confessing with your mouth” to acknowlede Jesus as Lord (v8);
• It’s how other early Christians in general used it.3
• Paul elsewhere applies the expression to Jesus.4
• The following questions only make sense if they refer to Jesus. (The one whom they classicaly advance ‘belief in’. The one whom Jews and Gentiles have not even “heard” about, and the one about whom Paul was preaching [cf. Rom 16:25 — [our] preaching of Jesus Christ (cf. 2 Cor 1:19, 4:5; see the same phraseology in Acts 5:42; Acts 8:35; Acts 10:36; Acts 11:20; Acts 17:18; Acts 19:13.)
If Paul quotes Jeremiah 9:23-34 in 1 Cor 1:31, the context implies Jeremiah’s use of “Lord” actually designates Jesus as the one we are to “boast” in, for personally “knowing [the Lord]” in his greatness. (Read Jeremiah 9:23-341, then read 1 Cor 1:23-2:1.2)
• … In context (v1:23-2:1), it is Jesus on the cross that is the world as shamefully foolish, unworthy of boasting.3
• …soonafter (2:15-16), Paul makes Jesus “Lord” of Isa 40;1, which is about our knowing God via knowing God’s mind. (So in knowing Jesus, we know God, and per Jer 9, can boast in this.)4