A live map of reasons and replies

In Galatians 1:16 does Paul mean “in” (i.e. “to reveal His Son in [ἐν] me”)?

Trace the strongest lines of support, challenge each claim, and follow every response as far as the reasoning goes.

Start with an argument
01 Reasons
supporting
02 Reasons
challenging

Before you begin

Orient yourself to the question

01 Question

Translations differ over how to translate “ἐν” in Gal 1:16; some use “IN” while others us “TO”:

  • Galatians 1:15-16 — “God… pleased to reveal His Son IN/TO [ἐν] me so that I might preach Him among the Gentiles…”

Did Paul intended for the verse to be read as “in me”?

The argument field

Follow a claim. Test its reply.

Open any reason to read its case. Linked claims take you deeper into the tree.

3 arguments at this level

For

Supports this claim

1 reason

  1. Paul typically means “to me”

    01 Supporting reason Paul typically means “to me” Read argument

    In both Paul’s letters and in how Acts represents Paul, the relationship between Paul and Jesus’s appearance is one of Jesus’ appearing “to” Paul.

    • 1 Cor 9:1.
    • 1 Cor 15:8.
    • Acts (9:1-19; 22:3-16; 26:9-18).

    This is relevant because it fits well with the context, wherein we understand Paul as saying that through him the Gospel's power is made manifest.

    Copy link

Against

Challenges this claim

2 reasons

  1. Linguistically, “en emoi” can only be “in me”

    01 Challenging reason Linguistically, “en emoi” can only be “in me” Read argument

    Just look at the Greek, the phrase ἐν ἐμοί can only be legitimately translates “in me” (or else, it is by far favored on the basis of the Greek alone). This is relevant because we do not wanting to be violating the rules of Greek.

    Sources and notes
    1. E.g. NLT, ESV, ISV etc. do translate 1:16 as “pleased to reveal His Son TO [ἐν] me.”
    2. E.g. the NET Bible opts to translate it as “in me,” but they neverthless add:

    • NET Bible Translator notes: “Or ‘to me’; the Greek preposition ἐν (en) can mean either, depending on the context.”

    1. E.g. in Paul’s letters.
    2. • 1 Cor 14:11 — “…and the one who speaks will be a barbarian TO [ἐν] me”
    Copy link

  2. Paul says “revealed to” when he wants

    02 Challenging reason Paul says “revealed to” when he wants Read argument

    Paul was not shy about saying “to” when that was his meaning.

    • He uses it without hesitation in 1 Cor. 2:10; 14.30; Eph 3:5; Phil 3:15.1

    This is relevant because...

    • James Dunn: “The ἐν ἐμοί could stand simply for the dative- ‘to me’ - and it is frequently taken in this way. But when Paul wants to use a dative with [apokaluptein] he does so; ... Presumably then the ἐν ἐμοί is chosen deliberately; and the obvious reason is to heighten the subjectivity of the revelation in the moment of encounter and in its impact on his inner life.” [Jesus and the Spirit (Eerdmans, 1975), 105.]
    Copy link