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Do Bible verses explicitly say Jesus is God?
Trace the strongest lines of support, challenge each claim, and follow every response as far as the reasoning goes.
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John 1:1 “and the Word was God”
01 Supporting reason John 1:1 “and the Word was God” Read argument
John 1:1 -- “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God” (NASB etc.). This is relevant because “the Word” is explicitly identified as Jesus (v. 14).
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John 1:18 “God the one and only”
02 Supporting reason John 1:18 “God the one and only” Read argument
John 1:18 -- “No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.”
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John 20:28 “to him... ‘My Lord and my God!’”
03 Supporting reason John 20:28 “to him... ‘My Lord and my God!’” Read argument
Jn 20:28 -- Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
Sources and notes
- By way of response, however, this is obviously a rather desperate/awkward/unnatural reading of the text. Moreover, the verse specifically says these words were directed “to Him” (to Jesus). No author would have expected his readers to interpret it differently.
- By way of response, however, this is unlikely. We know this for three reasons:
• “My Lord and my God” does not correspond to any known expression use in that day, or ever.** **As noted by A.T. Robertson, this was “Not exclamation, but address, the vocative case though the form of the nominative, a very common thing in the Koiné.” [Word Pictures in the New Testament (Broadman, 1927)]
• The verse specifically says these words were directed "to Him" (to Jesus)., and no reader would have interpreted otherwise (and no author would have expected them to).
• Using God's name in such a fashion was considered blasphemous. Thomas, as a devout Jew, would not have done it, and even if he did, Jesus plausibly would have reprimanded him.
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Titus 2:13 our God and Savior, Jesus”
04 Supporting reason Titus 2:13 our God and Savior, Jesus” Read argument
Titus 2:13 -- the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,
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2 Peter 1:1 “our God and Savior, Jesus”
05 Supporting reason 2 Peter 1:1 “our God and Savior, Jesus” Read argument
2 Peter 1:1 -- by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ.
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[Col 2:9 “in Him the fullness of Deity dwells”]
06 Supporting reason [Col 2:9 “in Him the fullness of Deity dwells”] Read argument
[Brackets] mean “forthcoming". But the whole verse reads: Col 2:9 -- For in Him [Jesus] all the fullness of Deity [Grk. theos] dwells in bodily form
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[Heb. 1:8 “of the Son He says, 'your throne, o God...'”]
07 Supporting reason [Heb. 1:8 “of the Son He says, 'your throne, o God...'”] Read argument
[Brackets] mean "forthcoming.” But the whole verse reads: Hebrews 1:3 -- “But of the Son He [God] says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the righteous scepter is the scepter of His kingdom.” (Hebrews 1:8). See also "And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power”
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