Apart from the question of whether Paul explicitly wrote that Jesus is God (see here[?]), did he at least overtly imply that Jesus is God? Did Paul take quotes, titles, roles, and properties noticeably and uniquely applicable to God and apply them to Jesus so-as to attribute to Jesus the divinity of YHWH?
When Paul called Jesus “Lord” (κύριος), he intended it to carry the meaning and weight of “YHWH” (God's personal name, which Jews use κύριος as a traditional translation/placeholder for). Right? [Full article.]